by Musicwhiz » Sat Sep 11, 2010 8:32 am
Hi cif5000,
I took about half a day to think about your replies. Thanks for taking the time to reply to specific sections of my posting, really appreciate that you can share your thoughts and insights.
You mentioned that selling should be independent of purchase price, which is correct. However, note that I had mentioned this in response to your previous posting where you said this - "Today closed at 4.38. Dunno how high it can go but the price now is almost at its historical high. I am thinking to sell mine." The statement made me think that you were commenting on price, rather than value and so led me to the conclusion that it was a price-centric decision, rather than a value-oriented one. As I said, if I was wrong I am sorry, but this was just the sentiment I got at the time (no offense intended).
I've never advocated putting all one's money into ONE single company or stock either. I concur with your view that capital allocation should be rational and based on factors at that point in time which make the most sense, in the absence of information about the future and also accounting for uncertainties during that period (i.e. March 2009 during the middle of the Great Recession). However, that said, the angle I was talking about was to do a studious evaluation of each company's merits and then allocate capital in the most rational manner to the one with the highest probability of achieving a good return on investment. I do not know the businesses of the other companies you mentioned (i.e. ARA, FJB, Lion Asiapac to name a few) well, but I was thinking more from the point of view of concentrating your monies on the best bets instead of spreading it out? Of course, I am more coming from a focused investor perspective while yours is more of a diversified, stable portfolio perspective; so it is possible we view the same issue differently. If so, please treat this discussion as being purely "academic".
It would not be fair to just quote "value investing 101" to summarize such a statement I made. I can give two examples:-
1) Warren Buffett purchased See's Candy at about 3x book value, because it was a business which required little capex and had high ROE and good favourable long-term prospects. Of course, one also had to note that people in general wil not stop eating candy anytime soon!
2) I also would like to refer you to an article written by Teh Hooi Ling of Business Times published August 15, 2010 titled "In Search of Super Returns For Stocks". In it she mentioned the following:-
"On the other hand, if the company is able to generate earnings above its cost of capital, then investors should be willing to pay more than the book value of its assets. Conversely, if a company's net earnings cannot even cover its cost of capital, then investors will only invest in the company if it is trading below its book value. A PTB ratio of two times (she was quoting an example) implies that investors are confident that the company can earn significantly above its cost of capital for a sustained period of time."
The above two points demonstrate that I am not alone in thinking that one is justified in paying a premiun over book value for an investment which can consistently generate superior returns on invested capital (above the cost of capital).
To be very frank, I did pause to take 1 minute to look at the charts of the prices for SIAEC, and noted that near its peak it was trading at an all-time high of S$5.00++, while at its low it was about S$1.00++. I guess you may say this indicates "optimism and pessimism", but I see it more as a valuation issue amid uncertainty, certainty and economic conditions. At a time of uncertainty, investors are willing to pay less of a premium both above book value and for price-earnings ratio (PER). This, however, does not mean that the business is impaired in a way significant enough to justify low valuations in the long-term; and SIAEC, like all the other stocks in the universe at the nadir of the stock market, may just have been unjustifiably "punished" by having to trade at such low P/B and PER when the business is still coughing up so much cash and earnings. So what I am saying is that price charts may not tell you much about the QUALITY of the business, or whether one should make a rational, objective decision to invest in it. Valuations will not return to crisis levels (back in March 2009) anytime soon, nor should an investor wait for such a time so that he can comfortably inject in all his funds. The 52-week high does not mean much when viewed from the perpsective of a recovering economy (from the worst recession in 70 years, no doubt).
On your last point, I've thought about it and it still makes sense to me to compute my dividend yield based on my cost, and not on the current market price. I fail to see why it should not make sense to compute it that way. I can give you my personal example:-
I purchase some shares in Boustead back in Sep 2008 for 40 cents, which translates into a dividend yield of 10% based on last year's declared dividends (1.5 cents interim, 2.5 cents final). If we take market price now of 89.5 cents, the dividend yield based on current price is "just" 4.47%. So if I retain my investment in Boustead at 40 cents and the company continues to pay HIGHER dividends, this means my cash is yielding 10% and more; while an investor who purchased at today's market price is just getting a yield of 4.47% as mentioned above. Dividend yield remains a function of purchase price and I fail to see how you can dissociate the two. It would be enlightening if you could explain your logic.
Thank you.